I think it may be a general principle that attributing intent to some person or group of people acts a justification for action against said people. Is this true? If so, why should it be?
"They are trying to get us all into pink-collar ghettoes so that we can serve as a cheap labor force for them." First off, who is "they" and how can we falsify this assertion of intent.
Jean-Paul Sartre tells us that intension is a meaningless concept, but I think we can see that it can in fact be quite pernicious. To make the intension attributed to a 3rd party the justification for one's own action is in a way a sort of question-begging, or a kind of strawman.
For example, "How are we going to keep the invisible purple elves from stealing our magical pancake syrup?"
More needed on this idea...