I have an hypothesis that all cases of women’s oppression such as this could be erased overnight and it would make no difference—society would not collapse.
The same is not true for men’s oppression , but that’s another story. Does women’s oppression have to exist in order to keep Men’s oppression operating? Maybe, but I don’t see that.
Do women have to be kept “not free” in order for men to continue to not notice their own lack of freedom? Maybe, but I’m not sure. I hypothesize that women’s oppression is “historically residual” as opposed to “functionally integral”—again, a “whole nother” (as we say in the States.
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